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10 Oct 2000 at 1:10 pm
#288233
fourth year
Participant
Let’s keep it real simple. You have to run a 1000 foot 4″ pipe, but there are two beams in the way. There is only 3/8″ between them. Using the example above, which disregards laminar flow resistance, 1,000 1/8″ pipes 1,000 feet long will supply the same amount of water. I don’t think so unless you only need a few gallons an hour. In fact about that time you would welcome the virtual fifth pipe you get by reducing the resistance area in relation to the volume and flow.